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 Achondroplasia  



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Author9 Posts
  #1

A woman gives birth to a child apparent achondroplasia. Two other siblings are of normal stature for their age. A genetic consultation group is asked to review the case. Both parents are 42 years old, and there is no previous family history of this condition.

What is the most likely explanation for the occurrence of this defect in this family?

a. gonadal mosaicism

b. incomplete penetrance

c. new mutation in the maternal gamete

d. new mitation in the paternal gamete

e. nonpaternity




  #2

d) dad is the problem here.


  #3

kaplana1234 wrote:
d) dad is the problem here. this is a new mutation. risk increases with age > 35 yo




  #4

.


  #5

right

D.


  #6

why not mother?


  #7

new mutation more common in father


  #8

D


  #9

D,,,,,BUT ,,,,HOW CAN YOU DIFFERNTIATE BETWEEN AUTOSOM. DOMIN. PEDGRE AND ANTIGENIC DRIFT PEDGRE????????





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