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 marfan syndrome  



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Author20 Posts
  #1






  #2

B


  #3

incomplete penetrance suppose to give you some kind of history in pedigree, in this case most likely it will be a new mutation


  #4

should be DDd...u cant hide autosomal dominant disease


  #5

Yeah I was wrong...new mutation does seem right.. I got a bit confusedconfused...cos was thinking only about the fact that in Incomplete penetrance, the patient does NOT have the disease phenotype/ symptoms and only has the mutation....


  #6

in incomplete penetrance you will have disease in grand parent and a patient, but not in parent


  #7

Thanks for that clarification babydoc4usmle!!! smiling face I got it now.


  #8

25% of Marfan syndrome patients are caused from de novo mutation of FBN1 gene.


  #9

25% of Marfan syndrome patients are caused from de novo mutation of FBN1 gene.
http://clinicalgenetics.blogspot.com


  #10

u386158,
wow.. [I first thought was that why would USMLE ask such a rare thing like a rare kind of spontaneous mutation in a rare genetic disease. but !@#$%^& it doesn't seem that rare]nod
I had always thought de novo mutations of such established genetic syndromes are rare.You taught me something. thanks.


  #11

what is the answer plz paheli?



  #12

I think D is the right answer too.



  #13

yes its due to the new mutation transmitted by one of the parent....nod


  #14

d


  #15

a


  #16

sorry D,I checked w paheli
www.wrongdiagnosis.com/m/ma...arfan_syndrome/inherit.htm


  #17

Dnod


  #18

D


  #19

D


  #20

hmmm. i thought new mutation is always a wrong .. bt not in this case.. thanks





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