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 NBME ,,NOTHING RIGHT !  



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Author5 Posts
  #1

Six months after the delivery of her fourth
child, a 37-year-old
woman undergoes laparoscopic tubal ligation. Menses
occur at regular
28-day intervals. During the operation, she is found
to have a small
dark lesion in the cul-de-sac and filmy adhesions
surrounding the
ovaries. A biopsy specimen of a cul-de-sac lesion
confirms the diagnosis of
endometriosis. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step
in management?

A
) Danazol therapy

B
) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist therapy

C
) Oral contraceptive therapy

D
) Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral
salpingo-oophorectomy

E
) No further treatment indicated







  #2

E--> No further treatment indicated


  #3

is it not b
why dosent she need treatment
she still has a long sexual cycle and endometriosis can cause dysparuenia and bleeding as well


  #4

but she has no symptoms
you still don't treat preemptively


  #5

agree with no treatment... No smx...no worries...





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