Prep for USMLEPrep for USMLE
         Forum      |     Resources New Posts   |   Register   |   Login


Post Reply  
  • 0/5
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5

Author5 Posts

Six months after the delivery of her fourth
child, a 37-year-old
woman undergoes laparoscopic tubal ligation. Menses
occur at regular
28-day intervals. During the operation, she is found
to have a small
dark lesion in the cul-de-sac and filmy adhesions
surrounding the
ovaries. A biopsy specimen of a cul-de-sac lesion
confirms the diagnosis of
endometriosis. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step
in management?

) Danazol therapy

) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist therapy

) Oral contraceptive therapy

) Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral

) No further treatment indicated


E--> No further treatment indicated


is it not b
why dosent she need treatment
she still has a long sexual cycle and endometriosis can cause dysparuenia and bleeding as well


but she has no symptoms
you still don't treat preemptively


agree with no treatment... No worries...

Bookmark and Share

This thread is closed, so you cannot post a reply.

Login or Register to post messages

show Similar forum topics

green card vs ...nothing
Score sent Dec 15th - nothing in the mail yet
show Related resources

NBME Self-Assessment Program
NBME Self-Assessment Program

Advertise | Support | Premium | Contact