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Author9 Posts
  #1

man who has Neurofibromatosis type 1 (autosomal dominant) marries a phenotypically normal woman. If they have five children, what is the probability that none of the children will be affected with this disorder? What is the probability that all of the children will be affected?




  #2

Actually, the probablity is the same for each case. Either scenario carries a 50% chance in a single case. So:

(0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) = 0.03125 or 3.125% that all will have the disease or that none will have the disease.


  #3

Yes its 50%, but calculation is like this...

50% means 1/2...,so (1/2)5 = 1/32

(since there r 5 childrens)

answer is 1/32 :1/32


  #4

Right...i just used a claculator :oops:

1/32 = 3.125%


  #5

good :oops:


  #6

guys, what would be the answer, if they twist it a little, like
1)what is the probability that only 1 of the 5 will have NF?
2)what is the probability that only 2 of 5 will have NF?


  #7

can you tell us meg


  #8

sorry Asmi, probability calculations is something that I am struggling with :oops:


  #9

Probability for each individual to get disease is same - 50%





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