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asmi
Forum Hero Topics: 1049 Posts: 4620 
man who has Neurofibromatosis type 1 (autosomal dominant) marries a phenotypically normal woman. If they have five children, what is the probability that none of the children will be affected with this disorder? What is the probability that all of the children will be affected?  
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Idiopathic
Forum Guru Topics: 19 Posts: 639 
Actually, the probablity is the same for each case. Either scenario carries a 50% chance in a single case. So: (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) = 0.03125 or 3.125% that all will have the disease or that none will have the disease.  
asmi
Forum Hero Topics: 1049 Posts: 4620 
Yes its 50%, but calculation is like this... 50% means 1/2...,so (1/2)5 = 1/32 (since there r 5 childrens) answer is 1/32 :1/32  
Idiopathic
Forum Guru Topics: 19 Posts: 639 
Right...i just used a claculator :oops: 1/32 = 3.125%  
asmi
Forum Hero Topics: 1049 Posts: 4620 
good :oops:  
meg
Forum Guru Topics: 62 Posts: 806 
guys, what would be the answer, if they twist it a little, like 1)what is the probability that only 1 of the 5 will have NF? 2)what is the probability that only 2 of 5 will have NF?  
asmi
Forum Hero Topics: 1049 Posts: 4620 
can you tell us meg  
meg
Forum Guru Topics: 62 Posts: 806 
sorry Asmi, probability calculations is something that I am struggling with :oops:  
Topics: Posts: 
Probability for each individual to get disease is same  50%  
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