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 PULM.EBOLISM  



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Author14 Posts
  #1

A 24-year-old woman appears at 8 weeks of pregnancy and reveals a history of pulmonary embolism 7 years ago during her first pregnancy. She was treated with intravenous heparin followed by several months of oral warfarin (Coumadin®) and has had no further evidence of thromboembolic disease for over 6 years. Which of the following statements about her current condition is true?

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1) Having no evidence of disease for over 5 years means that her risk of thromboembolism is not greater than normal.



2) Impedance plethysmography is not a useful study to evaluate her for deep venous thrombosis in pregnancy.



3) Doppler ultrasonography is not a useful technique to evaluate her for deep venous thrombosis in pregnancy.



4) The patient should be placed on low-dose heparin therapy throughout her pregnancy and the puerperium.



5) She is at highest risk for recurrent thromboembolism during the second trimester of pregnancy.





  #2

4


  #3

4


  #4

4 but these are toughsad


  #5

yes really tough...


  #6

4 IS THE RIGHT ANSWER.ITS ONE OF THE INDICATION FOR PUTTING PT ON ANTICOAGULANT IN PREGNANCY.I.E IF SHE HAS PREVIOUS EPISODE OF PE.AND ONLY HEPARIN NOT WARFARIN IS SAFE IN PREGNANCY.



  #7

Why not 1? Any evidence-based medicine to prove 1 is incorrect


  #8

Because pregnancy is the factor to cause her PE and VTE, so she needed to be treated


  #9

ANY INCIDENCE OF PE IN PREVIOUS PREGNANCY IS INDICATION OF HEPARINIZATION IN SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCIES


  #10

yup...4.


  #11

it should be low-molecular weight heparin now LMWH


  #12

why not 5?


  #13

Warfarin can be given in pueperium, can't it?



  #14

4





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