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A 45-year-old male presents with foot pain after an automobile accident. The examination shows tenderness, swelling, and ecchymosis over the midfoot. X-ray shows fracture of the base of the second metatarsal and lateral displacement of the second, third, fourth, and fifth metatarsals. What is the optimal management of this patient?

(A) Posterior splint, with orthopedic follow-up as needed

(B) Urgent orthopedic consultation for possible open reduction and internal fixation

(C) Splint the patient in equinus and follow up with orthopedics in 2 to 3 days

(D) Cast the foot and follow up with orthopedics in 2 to 3 days

(E) Hard-sole shoe, weight bearing as tolerated, follow-up in orthopedics as needed


choice B


right again!

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