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 pedigree  



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Author8 Posts
  #1

A woman has an autosomal dominant form of postaxial polydactyly. Assuming that you have not examined any other family members to determine whether they have postaxial polydactyly, what is the probability that her second cousin is also affected with this fully penetrant disorder?




  #2

With these last 2 genetics or probability qs that you gave many or most will skip the question or randomly guess under exam circumsances. I think it has to do with an extrapolation of the Hardy Weinberg Law. [And the probability equation] Ill try to get back with you with more info.


  #3

i think mjl1717, is just asking that how much percent of genes re common b/w two cousins, and if she si asking that i wouls go for 1/16, as its second cousins


  #4

i think its 1/32, sturge_weber can u tell how u calculate so i can correct myself


  #5

well i just took the assumption, that real brothers have half genes common, first cousins have one eighth genes common, so second cousins would have 1/16 genes common

well i am not sureraised eyebrow



  #6

can anybody explail this in detail,

please tell the source , we should refer for these ques





  #7

it's 1/32, but dont know how its calculated

www.tbdhu.com/NR/rdonlyres/...FAA370/0/consanguinity.pdf


  #8

thx a lot








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