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Author10 Posts
  #1

A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section. Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender. The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ampicillin-gentamicin
C. Clindamycin-gentamicin
D. Clindamycin-metronidazole
E. Metronidazole





  #2

It seems a UW question Diag ---Endometritis

B. Ampicillin-gentamicin



  #3

B seems appropriate.cool


  #4

yeah, i would say B.


  #5

D


  #6

Comeon
Clinda above the diaphragm
Metro below the diaphragm



  #7

Why not Clinda - genta?



  #8

ARJ wrote:
It seems a UW question Diag ---Endometritis

Agreed, but Tx is Cinda-Genta...


  #9

I think I have to read the topic againsmiling face


  #10

Thanks, renegade you are right................





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