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A 40-year-old woman is found to have a 1- to 2-cm, slightly tender cystic mass in her breast; she has no perceptible axillary adenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Reassurance and reexamination in the immediate postmenstrual period
B. Immediate excisional biopsy
C. Aspiration of the mass with cytologic analysis
D. Fluoroscopically guided needle localization biopsy
E. Mammography and reevaluation of options with new information


answer is A??






ans is C


it may be E?

E. Mammography and reevaluation of options with new information

In women older than 30 yo, mammogram should precede to identify and sample all suspicious areas and not only the palpable ones.


the best answer is C you have already a mass make a citology then do ct scan


The answer is "c'


if she was younger then 40 i would think is probably benign(tender mass, no dominant nodule kind of small cystic mass) and go for answer A
since she is 40 is cancer until proven otherwise(higher probability)
first i would do a mamogram to look for other nodules that r not palpaple and then to cyst aspiration
answer E here is kind of weird
so ill go for C too


C is right answer


i am still confused. what if the mass is palpable but not sure if it's solid or cystic, then the next step would be mammography? and if the mass is palpable and the pt's age is below 35, what to next, U/S?

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