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 RR, confidence and p-value  

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subhashchander posted the question below and i didnt see an answer. the answer may help someone (someone not needing a new roof wink:

A RCT conducted to asses effect of new aldosterone antagonist on progresion of chronic heart failure. Primary outcome in this study was all cause mortality. They reported a dec in all cause mortality in treatment group with relative risk of 0.71 (p=0.01). Which of following is best interpretation of reported association?
A. The results are statically insignificant
B. There is 71% dec in all cause mortality due to drug
C.95% C.I for relative risk includes 1.0
D. There is 1% chance that the result is biased
E. There is 1% probability that results was observed by chance

Answer: E. It's statistically correct and, the other answers are wrong.
P-value is the probability of chance. p=0.01 implies 1% probability that results was observed by chance.

A. it IS statistically significant: p=0.01 is a lot lower than the standard p value indicating significance, p=0.05.
B. There is 29% reduction in risk of mortality, NOT 71%.
C. I do not see a interval (95% confidence interval)
D. p-value is the probability of chance, not bias


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