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Author10 Posts
  #1

An 18-year-old sexually active college student presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain and irregular bleeding for 5 days. She has no fever. She uses oral contraceptives as her method of birth control. Upon examination, the cervix is friable and there is cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. Pregnancy test is negative.

Which etiologic agent is most likely responsible for these findings?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b. Chlamydia trachomatis

c. Treponema pallidum

d. Herpes simplex virus type 2

e. Mycoplasma hominis




  #2

b,mucopurulent cervicitis


  #3

B


  #4

B correct answer.
Chlamydia trachomatis is the most frequently reported bacterial
sexually transmitted disease (STD) in the United States. Infections of the
cervix may present as a friable cervix, but are most often without signs or
symptoms. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused by chlamydia often
presents with milder symptoms than when gonorrhea is the cause. Prompt
treatment reduces the occurrence of long-term sequelae such as infertility,
ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. The risk of infertility appears
to be higher for chlamydial infections compared to any other STD. Screening
women is important to reduce the risk of PID and its sequelae.


  #5

nodnod


  #6

nodnod


  #7

nod means that I agree it is B


  #8

Will you give treatment empirically or first confirm the diagnosis and what would be the confirmatory test if you want to confirm? and perhaps you will give treatment both for chlamydia and gonorrhea?


  #9

Will you give empiric treatment or you will first confirm the diagnosis? and if you decide to give treatment after confirmation what would be the confirmatory test?


  #10

Will you give treatment empirically or first confirm the diagnosis and what would be the confirmatory test if you want to confirm? and perhaps you will give treatment both for chlamydia and gonorrhea?





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