namf Forum Elite
Topics: 80 Posts: 312
| | 06/27/04 - 06:45 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
Hey! Saw this question on the Utah site (http://umed.med.utah.edu/testfiles/frame_template...) withouth any explanation for the answer. Help me out please! An X-linked recessive disease has a gene frequency of 0.002 (1/500) in a population. The penetrance of the disease gene is 50%. What proportion of the male population is expected to be affected with this disease? I'll post their answer just as soon as I hear back, but it's not 1/2000. What I got on second thought was saying 1/2 of boys born to carrier females x carrier females at 1/250 x 1/2 penetrance--is that how you'd do it to get 1/1000?? Thanks!!
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| mash Forum Fanatic
Topics: 147 Posts: 1,326
| | 06/27/04 - 06:56 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
1/1000 gene frequency is proportion of chromosomes dat contain a sp. allele. in XLR diseases only X ch carries the defective gene...dat means q^2 =1/500 if penetrance is 50% then no. of males affected wud be 1/500*1/2 = 1/1000
___________________ I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand. --Confucius
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| mash Forum Fanatic
Topics: 147 Posts: 1,326
| | 06/27/04 - 10:48 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
wats the ans?
___________________ I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand. --Confucius
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| Malaysian Forum Guru
Topics: 28 Posts: 778
| | 08/27/04 - 07:12 AM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
I got 1/1000 too.
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