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Author9 Posts
  #1

I am confused about this. Some sources say that the first Pap's have to be done at 18y/ o or at the onset of first sexual intercourse. The other ones says no, it is at age 21 or 3y after the first sex ( accordingly, even after infection with the HPV, it takes a little time for the dysplastic changes to start so it would be more economic to wait a little while).
Anybody have an idea :?:

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  #2

what I know of is 18 years or first intercourse.

Probably the idea is to get a baseline pap (as the above mentioned are the risk factors for HPV) to compare it with later paps.

I am not sure though.

  #3

It is stated in both kaplan IM and ob/gyn.

  #4

"First Pap test: Women should have their first Pap test (a screening of cervical cells) approximately 3 years after first sexual intercourse or by age 21, whichever comes first." http://www.drdonnica.com/today/00006953.htm

Too bad I don't remember my source, but just to be sure that I wasn't dreaming about it , I did some research.
This is the first that I come across.

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  #5

thanx, good info. May be kaplan notes are old.

  #6

I don't really know which one to go with.

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  #7

http://www.acog.org/from_home/publications/press_...

http://www.cdc.gov/cancer/nbccedp/cc_basic.htm#te...

I hope its clear now, first pap after 3 yrs of first sex. intercourse OR age 21 whichever comes first.

  #8

"or within three years of the first time they have sexual intercourse —"http://www.cdc.gov/cancer/nbccedp/cc_basic.htm#test

Is different than after 3 yrs right? because Is not only to prevent cervical cancer, is to find any STD or Am I wrong?

  #9

OGWM, the pap is to pick up any dysplasia or metaplasia or cyto change, which is a result of many factors including STD's , so if a pap is + , does not mean, we picked up an STD.
Is that ok wth U now ?







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