goneskuba
Forum Junior
Topics: 4
Posts: 47
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A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of the recent onset of obesity and easy bruisability. His blood pressure is 165/95 mm Hg. Dermal striae are found on physical examination. A dipstick examination of urine reveals glycosuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
a) Baseline plasma ACTH measurement
b)CT scans of the chest and abdomen
c)Dexamethasone suppression test
d)Measurement of midnight serum cortisol level
e) Measurement of 24-hour urine cortisol and creatinine
f)MRI scans of the head
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| tess
Forum Guru
Topics: 131
Posts: 368
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e) Measurement of 24-hour urine cortisol and creatinine
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| goneskuba
Forum Junior
Topics: 4
Posts: 47
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sorry tess....not the most appropriate next step
pls try again
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| tess
Forum Guru
Topics: 131
Posts: 368
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ok, then it is c)Dexamethasone suppression test
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| Dot
Forum Senior
Topics: 1
Posts: 168
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I] dexa suppression test {low dose] then
2]24 hr cortsol then
3]Dexa suppression [high dose] if positive go for ACTH LEVEL IF futhr Positive do ct scan head
3]If negative its ectopic tumor
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