doc4mindia
Forum Guru
Topics: 134
Posts: 243
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A 72-year-old woman with no prior medical history presents in the emergency department with a 3-hour episode of crushing substernal chest pain. The pain radiates to her arm and neck. An ECG reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient has no obvious contraindication to anticoagulation. Which of the following is the most optimal treatment at this time?
A. Avoidance of thrombolytic treatment given the patient's age
B. Administration of IV fluids
C. Administration of aspirin and heparin only
D. Administration of thrombolytic therapy, heparin, and aspirin
E. Cardiac surgery to bypass the occluded vessel
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| usmleasr
Forum Guru
Topics: 105
Posts: 970
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ans ..d i guess..heparin+asp+thrombolytics..
correct me if i am wrong
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| fried water
Forum Junior
Topics: 4
Posts: 57
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DDDDDDDDDDDD
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| xmihaela
Forum Junior
Topics: 1
Posts: 51
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D. Thrombolytic therapy, heparin, aspirin
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