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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author13 Posts
  #1

Which one of the following substances is secreted by malignant plasma cells in individuals with multiple myeloma and is the osteoclast-activating factor (OAF) that produces the characteristic lytic bone lesions?

A. Interleukin 1
B. Interleukin 6
C. Tumor necrosis factor
D. Transforming growth factor
E. Platelet-derived growth factor
my ans is A but d ans given is B. Can anyone explain?

___________________
I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand.
--Confucius

  #2

I would say that since IL6 stimulates B cells to differentiate into plasma cells, it would have to do more with multiple myeloma than IL1 because IL1 activates a wide variety of cells. Don't know if this reasoning is right thought, but if anyone else knows, please correct me.

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"If He takes you to it, He'll take you through it."

  #3

IL1 is osteoclast activating factor ..
so. i thought ans shud be IL1.

___________________
I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand.
--Confucius

  #4

Oh i see what your saying mash, hmmm, i guess the answer is wrong then???

___________________
"If He takes you to it, He'll take you through it."

  #5

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?hol...

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"Read Repeat Recall Remember Recognise & Reproduce"

  #6

I agree kalsam dat IL6 has a role in pathogenesis but ques is asking abt
the factor responsible fr lytic lesions(osteoclast activating factor)
im still confused.........

___________________
I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand.
--Confucius

  #7

Hmm..u r right..let me look again..

___________________
"Read Repeat Recall Remember Recognise & Reproduce"

  #8

The latest edition of Cecil says that both IL-1 and IL-6 are responsible for the osteoclast activating function.

  #9

Kaplan notes said => IL-6, so that would be my answer

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Please call me by my first name on March 17 - Dr.

  #10

I'm not sure how old this Q is, but currently, IL-1, IL-6 and TNF are refered to as "OAF", although all these factors do not act directly on osteoclasts, but lead to secretion of TRANCE from osteoblasts, which supposedly is the real OAF

  #11

"intern_doc" wrote:
Kaplan notes said => IL-6, so that would be my answer


Ans given that this is a Kaplan question, more than likely... :wink:

  #12

According to Dr. Goljan, IL1 is the osteoclast activating factor.

___________________
"If He takes you to it, He'll take you through it."

  #13

Yes! Dr. Goljan did say that. Also another tie in is that estrogen and testosterone puts OAF (IL-1) in check or at bay. ------> Osteoperosis in menopause.







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