kpmle2
Forum Guru
Topics: 95
Posts: 512
|
An otherwise healthy 27-year-old woman presents
to the ED with lower abdominal pain,
nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever that began
yesterday morning. The patient states that
the pain is present bilaterally; however, it is
more severe in the right lower quadrant of the
abdomen than the left. The patient has had
five sexual partners in the past year with whom
she sometimes used condoms and sometimes
had unprotected intercourse. Her menstrual
cycles have been regular with a moderate
amount of bleeding. At presentation, her vital
signs are temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood
pressure 112/72 mm Hg, pulse 72/min, and
respiratory rate 13/min. On physical examination,
there is bilateral lower quadrant abdominal
pain, along with cervical discharge and cervical
motion tenderness. A urine β-human
chorionic gonadotropin was negative, and a
complete blood count revealed WBCs
13,500/mm3, hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL, and
platelets 315,000/ mm3. What is the next step
in the management of this patient?
(A) Abdominal plain films
(B) Begin oral contraceptives
(C) Laparotomy
(D) Potassium hydroxide whiff test
(E) Ultrasound
|
| posha
Forum Newbie
Topics: 0
Posts: 3
|
D
|
| nightflight1945
banned
Topics: 32
Posts: 920
|
(E) Ultrasound
To rule out TOA
|
| xak235
Forum Senior
Topics: 10
Posts: 271
|
 but doesn't she be having spiking fever to have TOA?
___________________
Secrets with girls are like loaded guns; & with boys are never valued, till they make a noise!
|
| docnit
Forum Senior
Topics: 8
Posts: 193
|
not neccesarily...we need to rule out a TOA so that we can proceed with just IV antibiotics and continue with a drainage of the TOA if present.
|
| lampard
Forum Junior
Topics: 8
Posts: 95
|
not pregnant = no whiff
___________________
You have to win small battles ... to win war...!!!
|
|
| |
| | | | | | |
Similar forum topics