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Author10 Posts
  #1

A 40 year old man presents to your clinic for evaluation of progressive loss of sensation in both his arms. Further questioning reveals that the patient was in a motor vehicle accident a few years ago and suffered a cervical spinal cord injury. He has since made a full recovery without any neurological symptoms until now. Physical exam reveals loss of pain and temperature sensation bilaterally, but preservation of vibratory sense and muscle strength. A sagittal MRI T1 image of the patient’s cervical spine is shown.

This finding on MRI is commonly associated with which of the following conditions?



A. Pseudotumor cerebri
B. Dandy-Walker malformation
C. Arnold-Chiari malformation
D. Alzheimer’s disease
E. Scoliosis


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Edited by insight on 09/05/08 - 01:22 PM. Reason: correction

  #2

Syringomyelia assoiciated with Arnold Chiari syndrome


  #3

sticking out tonguenod

  #4

wink


  #5

Syringomyelia + Arnold Chiari syndrome type II

It may be silly (and lazy), what is Dandy-Walker malformation, guys?

  #6

Dandy-Walker is congenital enlargement of fourth ventricle without herniation of any component .there may be some associated anomalies like absense of vermis of cerebellum or ..


  #7

Thanks, nightflight smiling face

  #8

Your welcome


  #9

nightflight1945 wrote:
Dandy-Walker is congenital enlargement of fourth ventricle without herniation of any component .there may be some associated anomalies like absense of vermis of cerebellum or ..


absence of corpus callosum

What is the difference between Arnold Chiari malformation type I and II?

  #10

The difference between type I and II is the part of cerebellum extend through the foramen of magnum
I: cerebellar tonsil
II: cerebellar vermis (also medulla and 4th ventricle)







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