clar697
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A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department after inadvertently taking an overdose of metoprolol. His pulse is 40/min and blood pressure is 80/50mmHg. Glucagon is administered intravenously. Five minutes later, his pulse is 70/min and blood pressure is 130/80mmHg. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of glucagon in this patient?
A) Inhibition of cardiac muscarinic 2 (M2) receptors
B) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) Opening of K+ channels
D) Potentiation of drug-induced hypoglycemia
E) Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
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| md99381
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e
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| winnera
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any deeper explanation?
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| usmlekiller
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e
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FUTURE 99ER
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| eddyheart
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answer=E
Glucagon binds to the glucagon receptor, a G protein-coupled receptor located in the plasma membrane. The conformation change in the receptor activates G proteins, a heterotrimeric protein with α, β, and γ subunits. The subunits breakup as a result of substitution of a GDP molecule with a GTP mol, and the alpha subunit specifically activates the next enzyme in the cascade, adenylate cyclase.
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