clar697
Forum Guru
Topics: 190
Posts: 199
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A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of progressive generalized headaches and episodes of fading vision in either eye for several seconds. Visual acuity is 20/20. Pupils react well to light and accommodation. Visual fields are full on confrontation testing. Funduscopic findings in right eye were provided (pic could not be uploaded). Based on symptoms, which is most likely?
A) Optic atrophy
B) Optic neuruitis
C) Papilledema
D) Retinal infarction
E) Retrobulbar neuritis
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| skamran
Forum Senior
Topics: 9
Posts: 93
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papilledema ;C
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| Gourdon
Forum Senior
Topics: 15
Posts: 87
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retrobulbar neuritis
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| brainstem
Forum Guru
Topics: 8
Posts: 653
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C - benign intracranial hypertension.
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| DRFP
Forum Guru
Topics: 39
Posts: 709
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It's C look
Attached Files:
25.jpg (396 KB, 25 downloads)
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| aman11
Forum Newbie
Topics: 0
Posts: 9
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yes the disc does look swollen!
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| carol1176
Forum Newbie
Topics: 0
Posts: 4
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It is C.
Papilledema
Usually, vision is good in Papilledema.
In a Retrobulbar Neuritis, the Disc looks normal.
In a Optic Neuritis, usually vision acuity is affected. 20/70 or less.
Hemorrahage near nerve can be found in Papilledema. 
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| 1.ammara
Forum Junior
Topics: 8
Posts: 92
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Yes, a very important difference between papilloedema and optic neuritis/papillitis is that in the former vision is usually good though there may be transient blurring of vision but in the later, there is gross visual loss.
In retrobulbar neuritis, everything appears normal MOSTLY, except one very important sign i.e RAPD ( relative afferent pupillary defect) as they mentioned in the question too that pupils react normally!
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