USMLEGladiator 2009 & still in race

Topics: 135 Posts: 509
| | 07/13/08 - 04:46 AM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
40. A 57-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent urinary incontinence over the past 6 months. He has loss of small amounts of urine when he coughs or sneezes. He has not had pain or blood with urination. He has a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus with peripheral neuropathy, retinopathy, and gastroparesis. Current medications include metoclopramide and glyburide. He appears well. Rectal examination shows a normal-sized prostate. Neurologic examination shows decreased sensation in a stocking-glove distribution. Achilles tendon reflexes are absent bilaterally. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Urinalysis shows 2+ protein with no leukocytes or erythrocytes. His postvoid residual volume is 500 mL. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this patient's incontinence? A ) Central nervous system disorder B ) Functional incontinence C ) Intrinsic sphincter deficiency D ) Overflow incontinence from acontractile bladder E ) Overflow incontinence from bladder outlet obstruction F ) Pelvic floor muscle weakness G ) Retroperitoneal fibrosis H ) Retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy I ) Urinary tract infection
___________________ Chance favors only the prepared mind. - Louis Pasteur.
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| liliaeliz Forum Elite

Topics: 47 Posts: 429
| | 07/15/08 - 08:46 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
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___________________ sos el sol de mis dias
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