USMLEGladiator
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26. A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of intermittent diarrhea and severe cramping abdominal pain. The stools are watery, occasionally foul-smelling, and nonbloody. She is currently pain-free and has not had diarrhea for 2 days. She also has intermittent constipation. She has not had fever or weight loss. She returned from a trip to Mexico 3 months ago. She had an appendectomy at the age of 12 years and a cesarean delivery 4 years ago. Examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A
) Bacterial gastroenteritis
B
) Crohn's disease
C
) Intermittent small-bowel obstruction
D
) Irritable bowel syndrome
E
) Laxative abuse
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| GOGETA
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She has the pain for 2 years so the trip 3 months ago is a distratctor so you choose bacterial Gastroenteritis
laxative abuse and intermintente bowel obstruction does not seem like it
So is either chrons or irritable bowel syndrome
in the test I choose chrons but now that I think of it chrons will give you blood on the stool
so women = irritable boel syndrome
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