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GOGETA
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05/28/08 - 12:05 PM       #1

A healthy 71 y/o man describes visual loss in his right eye. Flashes of light and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision began when he awoke eight hours ago. These symptoms have persisted. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?


(A) Retinal vein occlusion
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Atheroembolic occlusion of a lateral branch of the right retinal artery
(D) Ocular migraine
(E) Occipital lobe seizure


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peter90036
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05/28/08 - 01:19 PM       #2

b


Vietnamese
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05/28/08 - 06:44 PM       #3

B- curtain-like loss is very important.

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mikky
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05/28/08 - 10:41 PM       #4

bnod


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DrVirgo
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05/29/08 - 04:22 AM       #5

(B) Retinal detachment



Is this called amarosis fugax (sp?) ?


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arlete
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05/29/08 - 04:24 AM       #6

B

Amarosis fugax is temporary (spontaneous recovery after a short time) and most of the time is related to arterial thrombosis or embolism, so it's not.


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DrVirgo
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05/29/08 - 04:27 AM       #7

arlete wrote:
B

Amarosis fugax is temporary (spontaneous recovery after a short time) and most of the time is related to arterial thrombosis or embolism, so it's not.


Thanks... but amarosis fugax and retinal detachment both present the same way right? with a curtain like loss of vision? Only amarosis fugax is temporary and reversible like you said... And retinal detachment has to be treated...


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arlete
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05/29/08 - 05:00 AM       #8

Yes, I've seen the "curtain like" being used for both situations in the books. Retinal detachment needs to be evaluated/treated by the ophtalmologist, amaurosis fugax grants a doppler of the carotids.


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paheli
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05/29/08 - 05:06 AM       #9

B


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GOGETA
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05/29/08 - 10:12 PM       #10

Answer is B.

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