fandarast
Forum Junior
Topics: 15
Posts: 55
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A 60-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, SAB 1 presents to your clinic reporting red-colored discharge from her left nipple. Her past medical history and medications, respectively, are as follows: diabetes, oral hypoglycemic; hypertension, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor; and major depression, fluoxetine. She is also taking conjugated estrogen with medroxyprogesterone acetate daily. She is allergic to penicillin. She says her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 71. What is the next best step in management?
A. Mammogram
B. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA)
C. Referral to breast surgeon
D. Cessation of hormone replacement therapy
E. Breast examination
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| hir
Forum Guru
Topics: 4
Posts: 524
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E
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| dr.wad
Forum Senior
Topics: 3
Posts: 350
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E
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| guangyu
Forum Elite
Topics: 29
Posts: 308
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| GOGETA
Trying to get in PGY1
Topics: 381
Posts: 3,068
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I jump in my head to the FNA, but after thnking it you guys are correct examination of the breast id first DAAAAAAAAAAA
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As a general rule, the better it felt when you said it, the more trouble it's going to get you into.
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