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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author5 Posts
  #1

A 7month old boy is brought to the pediatrician because the mom noticed the boy only had 1 testicle. The child was born through normal vaginal delivery, with no complications at normal birth weight. Apgar scores were 7 and 9 respectively. The child does not have any difficulty with urination. The scrotum does not appear enlarged and only one testicle is palpated. What is the next step in management?
A) Serum AFP levels
B) Serum hCG levels
C) Orchieplexy
D) Circumscise
E) Manipulate scrotum
F) CT scan of abdomen/pelvis
G) Ultrasound of abdomen/pelvis
H) Wait until 1yo and then send for orchieplexy

  #2

h wait until 1 yr and then send for orchieplexy since most of the time testes will descend by 1 yr

___________________
But they that wait upon the LORD shall renew their strength; they shall mount up with wings as eagles; they shall run, and not be weary; and they shall walk, and not faint-Isaiah 40:31

  #3

h


  #4

dont we want to see where the testis is (in abdomen or pelis)by USG


  #5

EEE
first you manipulate , to check ..







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