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Author3 Posts
  #1

Don't know which one is right. C? Thanks

Six months after the delivary of her fourth child, a 37-year-old woman undergoes laparoscopic tubal ligation. menses occur at regular 28-day intervals. During the operation, she is found to have a small dark lesion in the cul-de-sac and firmly adhesions surrounding the ovaries. A biopsy specimen of a cul-de-sac lesion confirms of endometriosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Danazol therapy
B)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist therapy
C)Oral contraceptive therapy
D)Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
E)No treatment indicated

  #2

no treatmet is indicated as long she is asymmptomatic

  #3

I picked E as well but I am not sure...







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