jasmin
Forum Junior
Topics: 7
Posts: 40
|
please explain
22. A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her mother noted blood on her underpants. Examination shows genital condylomata acuminata in the perineal, peri-introital, labial, and anal areas. Some of the pedunculated condylomata appear to have caused the bleeding. She has no visible intravaginal condylomata or vaginal or anal tears. Her mother has a palmar wart on her hand but no history of condylomata acuminata. Her mother has a boyfriend who does not live with them and who has never been left alone with the girl. They live with the mother's 27-year-old brother who only baby-sits the children when they are asleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
) Psychiatric assessment of the mother
B
) DNA typing of the mother's palmar wart for papillomavirus
C
) Treatment of the mother's palmar wart
D
) Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the child
E
) Laser therapy of the condylomata acuminata in the child
|
| inkspot
Forum Guru
Topics: 26
Posts: 557
|
i think D:
investigate this case as suspected child abuse. treatment will follow but first lets have a clear diagnosis to what led to these warts.
if D is not correct than it can be B: are the mother palmer warts causing perianal warts in child ( while she wash her)
More discussion on this please !
___________________
Aagae Aagae Dekho hota hai kiya !!!
|
| ricardoricardo
Forum Newbie
Topics: 0
Posts: 26
|
d i think w eshoult role out sexual abuse
|
| Markus2009
Forum Senior
Topics: 9
Posts: 189
|
I am thinking about child abuse as well but the fact that the mom has the lesion in her hands makes me think that perhaps is the same serotype reason for wich i picked B but I was wrong, just found out that they are caused by different serotypes then the answer has to be D
Edited by Markus2009 on 04/18/08 - 07:31 AM
|
|
| |
| | | | |
