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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author5 Posts
  #1


A 42-year-old woman comes for a follow-up examination.

Two weeks ago,

her blood pressure was 152/94 mm Hg during a routine

visit. Her blood

pressure today is 150/94 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and

respirations are

14/min. Examination shows no other abnormalities.

Serum studies show:

Na+ 142 mEq/L

Cl– 105 mEq/L

K+ 4 mEq/L

HCO3– 26 mEq/L

Urea nitrogen (BUN) 12 mg/dL

Glucose 101 mg/dL

Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL

An ECG shows no abnormalities. Which of the following

is the most

appropriate next step in management?

A

) Measurement of plasma renin activity

B

) Serum lipid studies

C

) 24-Hour urine collection for measurement of

metanephrine level

D

) Echocardiography

E

) Captopril renal scan

a or e?



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You become what you think you are!

  #2

B


  #3

r u sure? y?


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You become what you think you are!

  #4

yes .

-this is not hyperaldosteronism coz electrolytes are normal ...so not ( A )

_ not pheochromcytoma coz BP is satble and glucose is normal....in pheo the BP is variable from time to time and glucose is high coz catecholamine have anti- insulin effect.....so not ( C ).

- the pt is not in heart failure , no signs of coarctation of aorta , no signs of aortic regurge ( note in aortic regurge there is diastolic hypertension )....so not ( D ).

-this is not renal artery stenosis coz serum electrolytes are normal .....in RAS there is secondary hyperaldosteronsim .....so not ( E )


  #5

k.thanks!


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