sandra
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31. An 18-year-old man comes to the physician 1 week after he had a blood pressure of 140/110
mm Hg during a routine precollege examination. His temperature is 37.1 C (98.7 F), blood pressure
is 140/100 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 12/min. The upper extremities appear to
be more muscular than the lower extremities. Radial pulses are normal; femoral, posterior tibial,
and dorsalis pedis pulses are decreased. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard over the precordium,
anterior chest, and back. An ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A ) Limiting physical activity
B ) Repeat blood pressure measurement in 1 month
C ) Initiate a low-sodium diet and exercise program
D ) Pharmacologic management
E ) Operative treatment
d or e? isnt it necessary to control bp with medications before the surgery?
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| RX 135
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e...
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| ssssss
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explain plz
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| Ujk
Forum Guru
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D
"Less severe coarctation of the aorta - Patients presenting with less severe coarctation of the aorta beyond the neonatal period usually have chronically increased afterload and show signs of congestive heart failure. These patients should be treated with digoxin and diuretics.
- Attempts should be made to postpone intervention, such as surgery or balloon dilatation, until the patient is hemodynamically stable." Source :http://www.emedicine.com/med/topic154.htm
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| Vietnamese
Forum Elite
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E-
Coartation of Aorta:
Collateral arteries went so much in this case, then it has been progressive for long.
Dilatation first: if fails----> second attempt: If fails back-----> Surgery.
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| mangoshaikh
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E he is hemodynamicaly stable and it is severe so-->correct it
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