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Author6 Posts
  #1


22. A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her mother noted blood on her underpants.

Examination shows genital condylomata acuminata in the perineal, peri-introital, labial, and anal

areas. Some of the pedunculated condylomata appear to have caused the bleeding. She has no

visible intravaginal condylomata or vaginal or anal tears. Her mother has a palmar wart on her hand

but no history of condylomata acuminata. Her mother has a boyfriend who does not live with them

and who has never been left alone with the girl. They live with the mother's 27-year-old brother

who only baby-sits the children when they are asleep. Which of the following is the most

appropriate next step in management?

A

) Psychiatric assessment of the mother

B

) DNA typing of the mother's palmar wart for papillomavirus

C

) Treatment of the mother's palmar wart

D

) Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the

child

E

) Laser therapy of the condylomata acuminata in the child



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  #2

E

  #3

E




  #4

frank child sexual abuse

D


  #5

D.. to rule out sexula abuse...

  #6

we have to rule out sexual abuse first ..so D is my first choice answer







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