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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author7 Posts
  #1


3. A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after a high-speed motor

vehicle collision. On arrival, he is awake and alert but has severe pain over the sternum. His systolic

blood pressure is 80 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 10/min. An ECG shows multifocal

premature ventricular contractions but no ST-segment changes. His PO2 is 100 mm Hg. After 1 L of

lactated Ringer's solution is administered, his PO2 decreases to 60 mm Hg while breathing 4 L/min

of oxygen by nasal cannula. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure has increased from 14 mm Hg to

24 mm Hg (N=1–10). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's poor

response to fluid resuscitation?

A ) Inadequate administration of fluids

B ) Myocardial contusion

C ) Myocardial infarction

D ) Pulmonary contusion

E ) Traumatic rupture of the aorta



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  #2

Isn't this thing E?

  #3

dddddd..aggravate wid fluids

  #4

B - myocardial contusion
(premature ventricular contractions, signs of left ventricular failure, decreased PaO2 secondary to pulmonary edema)
pulmonar contusion needs a couple of hours (to days) to fully develop.

  #5

agree, it is B

  #6

_BBB. myocardial contusion

  #7

B

Confuse B and E.
If 2-3 liters had bolus offered, then positive inotrope would have improved hemodynamic. That was fair for cardiac contusion.

Other ideas please !

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