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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author3 Posts
  #1


A 57-year-old woman has had progressive shortness of breath over the past 2 days. The

woman was admitted to the medical service 6 days ago after a fall and has been on bed rest

for a nondisplaced pubic ramus fracture. She has been on deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis

with subcutaneous heparin. Her past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes and

dialysis-dependent renal failure secondary to diabetic nephropathy. She makes no urine at

baseline. Her last dialysis run was 4 days ago, though she usually undergoes dialysis 3 times

per week. She has no chest pain. On physical examination, she appears anxious. Her blood

pressure is 160/105 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Her oxygen

saturation is 80% on room air, and she appears cyanotic. She has a jugular venous pressure

of 10 cm and inspiratory crackles half way up from the bases on auscultation of the lungs. An

electrocardiogram reveals a rate-related right bundle branch block but no ischemic changes. A

chest x-ray film obtained yesterday revealed interstitial edema and vascular redistribution to

the apices. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy?

A.
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An anti-hypertensive agent to decrease her blood pressure to normal
B.
A beta blocker to better control her pulse
C.
Intravenous morphine to decrease her respirations to normal
D.
Oxygen by endotracheal intubation to maximize the oxygen concentration
E.

[font face="Arial"]what does she have?

[/font]Oxygen by face mask to increase her oxygen saturation



___________________
You become what you think you are!

  #2

E

  #3

pt in heart failure .hasnt been dialysed as per her ususal schedule. she is backing up her fluids.
next thing to do- O2 by mask.








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