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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author5 Posts
  #1

A previously healthy 68 yo M comes to the ER for abdominal pain for 48 hours. T: 38.6 C( 101.5F), HR: 110, RR : 16. Abdominal examination shows left lower abdominal pain tenderness with no peritoneal signs. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. test for occult blood is negative. WBC: 14 700. Which of the following is the next best step in management:
a.-Barium enema
b.-CT of the abdomen
c.-Colonoscopy
d.-Cystoscopy
e.-Exploratory laparotomy

Pz explain your answer


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  #2

B-------------------->CT Abdomen


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"Obstacles are those frightful things you see when you take your EYES off your goal."

  #3

B - CT of the abdomen - because the inflammation is mostly extraluminal you`re not going to see much with contrast enemas

  #4

B. Coz all luminal intervention like colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy r contraindicated in the acute inflammatory diverticulitis. barium is of no use in the acute state,most cases subside with conservative management...so no exploratory laparotomy....

hmmm...what else is left??? cystoscopy...i think u can reason tht out anyway...

Ct is the best modality...to look for development of abcess or to look for perforation in cases where the person isnt responding to conservative management.




  #5

I know it is a very basic question and i picked CT too but I just wanted to point out that the answers given in the downloaded form are not reliable at all. They think it is C (are you kidding me shocked )

Thanks all


___________________
If you beleive you can do it then you WILL DO IT!! (by Mymeghhi)







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