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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

Really need some explanation on this one, only gets confusing while trying to understand it in the literatureconfused. Thanks!

A 68-year old woman presents to her primary care office for a routine visit. She is generally in good health, and her only medications are hydrochlorthiazide and metoprolol for high blood pressure. She has had no recent changes in her health, and review of systems is negative. Examinations shows occasional enlarged cervical and inguinal lymph nodes. The liver and spleen are not enlarged. An electrolyte panel is within normal limits, a peripheral smear shows smudge cells, and a complete blood count shows a WBC count of 47,000/mm3 (with 89% lymphocytes), a hemoblobin of 12,9 g/dl, and a platelet count of 213,000/mm3. What is the best treatment for this patient?

A. Chemotherapy
B. Imatinib
C. No treatment is indicated at this time
D. Radiation
E. Splenectomy



  #2

This is CLL. She is not sypmtomatic. C.

___________________
"Nature magically suits a man to his fortunes, by making them the fruit of his character".

  #3

neurom wrote:
This is CLL. She is not sypmtomatic. C.


Oh that explains everything to me. The subject is messed up in my book you see, they have labeled the table of diagnostic regimens for CML with CLL!

Sorry for bothering you, and thanks a lot!


  #4

you're very welcome and Happy New Year!

___________________
"Nature magically suits a man to his fortunes, by making them the fruit of his character".

  #5

Of course you should not treat asymptomatic CLL, but CML you should, right?


  #6

yes, the earlier you start to treat it the greater response you get..

___________________
"Nature magically suits a man to his fortunes, by making them the fruit of his character".







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