Tiff
Forum Guru
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A 19 year old man who has been camping in western US complains of a fever and swelling in his groin area. Examination shows an enlarged, fluctuant, tender right inguinal lymph node and signs of flea bites on his legs and feet. There are no penile lesions or discharge. The organism is isolated by culture. Which of te following best describes the organism?
A - Gram negative kidney shaped diplococci
B - Gram negative rod that shows bipolar staining
C - Gram positive coccus that grows in chains
D - Gram posisitve coccus that grows in clusters
E - Spirochete
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| exambuster
Forum Newbie
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B?
plague by yersinia pestis
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| silver
Forum Guru
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B--->F. tularensis (tularemia) or Y. pestis----one of these organisms
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| new_n_lost
Politically InCorrect
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B - Gram negative rod that shows bipolar staining
Most likely Yersinia
Franciscella tularensis: doesnt show bipolar staining
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| silver
Forum Guru
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ok NNL 
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| Tiff
Forum Guru
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That's right! Answer is B.
The patients history and clinical manifestation are consistent with the diagnosis of bubonic plague. The disease is caused by Yersinia pestis, which is a gram negative rod that shows bipolar staining. The organism is spread by fleas, which in this case were feeding on forest animals when the man entered their environment.
(Also the insect vector for Francisella tularensis is a tick, not a flea)
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| arlete
Intern in 2009!!!!!
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Good one!
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