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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author12 Posts
  #1

Physical examination of a 45-year-old diabetic patient demonstrates a pulsatile abdominal mass. Radiographic studies demonstrate a 10 cm diameter aneurysm of the abdominal aorta with foci of calcification in the walls.

Which of the following is the most likely etiology for this aneurysm?

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Congenital weakness
C. Cystic medial necrosis
D. Syphilis
E. Vasculitis


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  #2

c?

  #3

A: Atherosclerosis?

If I remember ....Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of aneurysms in the descending aorta (abdominal) and cystic medial necrosis is the most common cause of aneurysms in the thoracic aorta.....

What do you say nnl?


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  #4

A it is...
is there this difference which actiny said...i thought MCC is atherosclerosis whatever be the positionraised eyebrow

  #5

A..desending aorta, pulsatile mass and diabetic..straight up atherosclerosis.

C is teritary syphyllis...i think.

  #6

No doubt atherosclerosis


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  #7

A. Atherosclerosis


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  #8

A for sure.


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  #9

hope4dabest wrote:
A it is...
is there this difference which actiny said...i thought MCC is atherosclerosis whatever be the positionraised eyebrow

No there is a difference in both location and age. young patient with a possible aneurym Marfan or EDS can be the cause in the descending thoracic aorta, in ascending aorta syphilis can play a role along with cocaine use.

___________________
FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #10

acintya wrote:
A: Atherosclerosis?

If I remember ....Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of aneurysms in the descending aorta (abdominal) and cystic medial necrosis is the most common cause of aneurysms in the thoracic aorta.....

What do you say nnl?

CMD is the pathogensis for Aortic dissection not for Aortic aneurysms and yes you are right about the locations. Mostly abdominal aneurysms would have an atherosclerosis as a major risk factor. While the thoracic ones will have CMD as their pathological process.


Edited by new_n_lost on 12/10/07 - 02:29 PM

___________________
FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #11

The correct answer is A.

This is a typical presentation of an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which is almost always due to severe atherosclerosis. The foci of calcification described occur within the atherosclerotic plaques, and indicate severe atherosclerotic disease.

Congenital weakness of vessels (choice B) can produce berry aneurysms, especially in cerebral vessels in the circle of Willis.

Cystic medial necrosis (choice C) can produce dissecting aneurysms, especially in Marfan's syndrome.

Syphilitic aneurysms (choice D) typically involve the aortic root as it leaves the heart.

Vasculitis (choice E) can produce aneurysms in small arteries.

So rule of thumb as explained by Goljan in RR pgs 156-160 is that

The ascending thoracic aorta is generally most affected by cystic medial necrosis, whereas a descending (thoracic & abdominal) aneurysm is primarily a consequence of atherosclerosis.


___________________
FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #12

Thanks NNL, for clarifying about CMD for Aortic dissection and Atherosclerosis for Aneurysms!


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Life is a Mind Game! Remember, obstacles aren't meant to prevent your success; they only slow you down and show you where you must work harder.







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