dudefop
Forum Newbie
Topics: 5
Posts: 22
|
A 60-year-old woman has acute onset of right-arm and -leg weakness, with normal sesation and speech. Her initial computed tomography(CT) scan is normal. Which of the following is likely to be the best long-term treatment?
(A) Warfarin
(B) Aspirin
(C) Left carotid endarterectomy
(D) Treatment of underlying heart disease
(E) Control of hypertension and diabetes
___________________
Passed step1, Step2 CS. Now preparing for CK. Grad of Inha Univ. College of Medicine, South Korea.
|
| tamerbashir
Forum Elite
Topics: 20
Posts: 284
|
E??
|
| dudefop
Forum Newbie
Topics: 5
Posts: 22
|
Yes, the answer is E.
The pure motor hemiparesis described would likely be associated with a small lacunar infarct of the left internal capsule. The signs and symptoms are generally part of small-vessel disease, usually associated with diabetes, hypertension, or smoking. Large-vessel disease from the carotid artery is unlikely because a stroke in this area would also cause aphasia; therefore, left carotid endarterectomy would not be an appropriate treatment(Choice C). Warfarin(Choice A) and aspirin(Choice B) have their place in medical management of cardiac and large-vessel disease, respectively, but neither fits this scenario. Although this patient is also likely to be at risk for heart disease, cardiac medication would not necessarily confer protection to the central nervous system(CNS) [Choice D].
___________________
Passed step1, Step2 CS. Now preparing for CK. Grad of Inha Univ. College of Medicine, South Korea.
|
|
| |
| | | |
