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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



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  #1

A 1-year-old boy is brought to the office by his mother because of a swelling in his left grointhat was initially noticed while giving him a bath 3 months ago. She feels that this swelling is completely asymptomatic and has grown minimally in size. The child was born without any difficulties, but developed a hydrocephalus, for which he underwent a ventricular peritoneal shunt. Since then he has had no other significant difficulties, besides some mild upper respiratory tract infections, which were well controlled. Physical examination reveals a left-sided easily reducible inguinal hernia and no other abnormalities. The most appropriate advice to this child's mother is that

A. a bilateral inguinal hernia repair is indicated
B. a left inguinal hernia repair is indicated
C. observation is all that is indicated
D. repair should be delayed until the child is 2 years of age
E. reversal of the ventricular peritoneal shunt is indicated


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  #2

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