phuluong2k
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Any one can explain this q ? plz help
I think that the choice is B too
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| knasim
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I also think the answer is B. and the expalnation in my mind is that as during menopause the androgen production is already decreased to about 50%(this percentage I read somewhere). But still some androgen is produced because of the stimulation from the raised LH level. As the main effects of HRT therapy are to replace estrogen and progestrone(if combination therapy) but at the same time decrease the FSH and LH levels. So the LH hormone stimulus to androgen production will be reduced , leadig to less androgen production.
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| phuluong2k
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Yeah, it sounds logic
Thanks
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| ssrpk
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it's true tht normal production of estrogen follows the production of androgens from the ovary......but tht androgen does'nt make any significant contribution to the circulating blood leves of androgen in a female....coz the majority comes from adrenal....
then how come deficiency of androgens of ovarian origin can be the cause of decreased libido.....?
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| knasim
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Ovary is one of the major androgen producing organ in females along with adrenals. It produces 40% of it and 40% is still something.
It is very clearly mentioned in many sources that in menopausal woman there is a 50% decline in androgen levels.
But here is something else I found that I never thought of before, is that estrogen is required for the production of Sex Hormone Binding globulin. Which binds androgens. At least for the oral contraceptives they say that they increase this protien level that binds free androgens and thus decrease the androgen effects. I am assuming the same mechanism for HRT too.
But may be there is some other explanation. I am not sure.
Check out this page too.
http://www.sexualityandu.ca/eng/health/SOW/androgens.cfm
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| ssrpk
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"Ovary is one of the major androgen producing organ in females along with adrenals. It produces 40% of it and 40% is still something."
where did u read this from....i mean which book....kaplan says the opposite thing
anyway thing with protein binding efect is true for androgen of ovarian origin but adrenal androgens are secreted in a water soluble form(as sulphates)......so won't be effected by HRT
ANY COMMENTS!
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| knasim
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Now I have to really dig into it. but about the 40% of the androgen production you can find some information on the website I posted in my previous posting. Please do check that out. I am getting a little confused now and have to make myself more clear.
Any thoughts from any one else please?
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| ssrpk
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well as this whole topic of androgen involved in female sexual drive is a controversy ..... we shud limit ourselves to the fact tht androgen does make a sugnificant contribution in sex. desires regardless of other minor contributing factors.
As it was mentioned tht ovarian androgen does make a contribution(abt 40%) to the circulating levels then i wud agree with the fact tht after menopause HRT will inhibit the endogenous production of androgen (-ve feedback effect over GnRH) from the ovary :arrow: reduced drive.
regarding the question...both A & B seem correct
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