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marfan syndrome
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Author13 Posts
  #1



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  #2

B

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  #3

incomplete penetrance suppose to give you some kind of history in pedigree, in this case most likely it will be a new mutation

  #4

should be DDd...u cant hide autosomal dominant disease

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When going gets tough, the tough gets going

  #5

d

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time to go back to books...

  #6

Yeah I was wrong...new mutation does seem right.. I got a bit confusedconfused...cos was thinking only about the fact that in Incomplete penetrance, the patient does NOT have the disease phenotype/ symptoms and only has the mutation....

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The more a memory has been encoded, elaborated, organized, and structured, the easier it will be to retrieve.

  #7

in incomplete penetrance you will have disease in grand parent and a patient, but not in parent

  #8

Thanks for that clarification babydoc4usmle!!! smiling face I got it now.

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The more a memory has been encoded, elaborated, organized, and structured, the easier it will be to retrieve.

  #9

25% of Marfan syndrome patients are caused from de novo mutation of FBN1 gene.

  #10

25% of Marfan syndrome patients are caused from de novo mutation of FBN1 gene.
http://clinicalgenetics.blogspot.com

  #11

u386158,
wow.. [I first thought was that why would USMLE ask such a rare thing like a rare kind of spontaneous mutation in a rare genetic disease. but !@#$%^& it doesn't seem that rare]nod
I had always thought de novo mutations of such established genetic syndromes are rare.You taught me something. thanks.

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  #12

what is the answer plz paheli?


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  #13

I think D is the right answer too.


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