Doc750
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59 year old african american female, admitted to the E.R. with hypotension. Blood pressure via intra-arterial method is 72/46 mmHg. Heart rate is 120 beats/minute. PCWP = 16 mm Hg. MVo2 is 16 vol% (N=15.5vol%). The most likely cause of this patient's condition is?
A. Neurogenic Shock
B. Volume depletion
C. Volume overload
D. Right Ventricular infarction
E. Septic Syndrome
F. Hemorrhagic Shock
Edited by Doc750 on 10/31/07 - 11:20 AM
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| Doc750
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Experience is a hard teacher because she gives the test first, and the lesson afterwards.
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| MAGY17
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D RIGH VENT INF
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| deja_vu
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septic
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| deja_vu
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MVo2 is 16 vol% (N=15.5vol%) shows hypotension is due to vasodilation not to stagnation. and PCWP is 16. both indicates septic. Rt vent Failure will show decreased mvo2
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GOAL: NEURO-2009, Creds: 2007 Grad, Need H1B/J1, Doing MPH, Step1:266, Step2CK:272, CS: Awaiting results, USCE (O'ship) & USLORs: + (Neuro), Trying to get into a clinical research in INR.
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| MAGY17
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low pcwp>>>>>>>>hypovlolemic, septic shock
normal pcwp>>>>>>>ARDS
hight pcwp>>>>>>>cardiac failere
correct me
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| Doc750
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Answer E Septic Syndrome aka Septic Shock
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| sandra
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hi,
could anyone shed light on the changes associated with pcwp n Mvo2 in the above mentioned options.
thanks
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