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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author8 Posts
  #1

A 64-year-old male with a history of rheumatic fever presents to you with general malaise and funny heart rhythm for the past 2 weeks. He had an ECHO done last year, which revealed that he had mild degree of mitral stenosis. He was management medically with diuretics. The blood pressure is 150/85 mmhg. EKG shows atrial fibrillation. The next step in his management is:
A. Cardioversion at 5joules
B. Lidocaine
C. Flecainidine
D. Carotid massage
E. Diltiazem

  #2

Afib for 2 weeks: rate control and anticoagulation therefore I will go with (E) calcium channel blocker

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  #3

nod

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"أقرأ بأسم ربك الذي خلق,خلق الأنسان من علق,أقرأ و ربك الأكرم, الذي علم بالقلم,علم الأنسان ما لم يعلم"

  #4

E

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  #5

If it was PSVT I would have said carotid massage.. I was torn between carotid massage and calcium channel blocker..
Also I understand even if the patient was unstable cardioversion is the last resort contrary to what Kaplan says..

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  #6

not 2 weeks if AFIB >2 days.....u give ccb+warfarin
if AFIB with decreased cardiac fn then digoxine

correct me if i'm wrong

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  #7

correct dr georgienodnod

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  #8

Yes. the correct answer is E







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