drdg
Forum Senior
Topics: 31
Posts: 176
|
A 70-year-old male presents with malaise, pain and stiffness of his neck, shoulder and hips for the last 3 months. His stiffness is worse in the morning and lasts about 30-40 minutes. he also complains of a recent weight loss of 7 lbs and mild fever. He also no headache, scalp tenderness, visual symptoms or jaw claudication. PE shows no swelling or tenderness of the involved joints with normal range of motion on active and passive movement. The arteries of the scalp, neck and extermities are normally palpable without any tenderness. Labs show a hematocrit of 31% and ESR of 65 mm/hr. Blood culture are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Temporal artery biopsy
B. Treatment with NSAID
C. Treatment with low-dose prednisone
D. Treatment with high-dose prednisone
E. Measure Antinucler aantibody and rheumatoid factor levels.
|
| titly
Forum Elite
Topics: 21
Posts: 308
|
E 
___________________
we spend our days waiting for the ideal path to appear in front of us, but, what we forget is paths are made by walking, not by waiting. keep walking................................
|
| neuroblastoma
Forum Guru
Topics: 105
Posts: 1,055
|
Polymyalgia rheumatica
ans-- C low dose steroid beacuse there is no involvement of temporal arteritis.
if temporal arteritis give high dose steroids
and confirmatory test for temporal arteritis is temporal artery biopsy.
|
| Ivonne
Find a way or make one
Topics: 58
Posts: 1,613
|
Agree with neuro: PR: low-dose prednisone 10-20mg/day
___________________
"I must, I can and I will"
|
| drdg
Forum Senior
Topics: 31
Posts: 176
|
Yes, the answer is C. Neuro explained it.
|
|
| |
| | | | | |
