njcjzy
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of weakness, generalized swelling in his extremities, and right leg pain. At the time of presentation, he appears to be in moderate distress from the leg pain. The patient states that his symptoms started two days ago. The patient also has frequent urination and increased thirst. He states that he has felt weak for the past few months. Physical examination reveals a tender, erythematous, and swollen right calf. He also has 2+ pitting edema in all extremities. Blood pressure is 107/55 mm Hg, and temperature is 100.3 F. Venous ultrasound is positive for lower extremity deep vein thrombosis. Laboratory studies reveal:
White cell count 11,000/mm3; hematocrit 32.3%; platelets 105,000/mm3; K 4.0 mEq/L; BUN 24 mg/dL; creatinine 1.7 mg/dL. The PT/PTT are normal.
Total bilirubin 0.4 mg/dL, AST 28 U/L, albumin l.9 g/dL, cholesterol 326 mg/dL; triglycerides 425 mg/dL.
Urine dipstick shows protein 3+, hemoglobin 1+, white cells 1+; 24-hour urine shows 6.2 grams of protein.
What is the next step in the treatment of this patient?
(A) Renal biopsy
(B) Plasmapheresis
(C) Anticoagulation
(D) Cyclophosphamide
(E) Prednisone
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| hanialkhadher
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(C) Anticoagulation
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| titly
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anticoagulation
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| me007
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e?
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| Kamsi
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C Pt has DVT secondary to DM nephropathy
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| aaroho
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this pt.has low platelet count so i think we can't anticoagulate him.
Secondly features looks like of nephrotic syndrome.so i think we should do renal biopsy first.
Ans-A
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| Doc750
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A biopsy
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| dr.wad
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B- this is TTP .
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| Ivonne
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I was thinking about that too TTP....early diagnosis. Nice question.
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| drdg
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yes, TTP. So B
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| Ivonne
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But with TTP patients have neurologic symptoms and lower platelet count...
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| njcjzy
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answer is C.
Explanation:
This patient has nephrotic syndrome based on the presence of edema, hyperproteinuria, hypoproteinemia, and hyperlipidemia. Such patients are predisposed to developing a hypercoagulable state secondary to the renal losses of proteins C and S and antithrombin III, as well as increased platelet activation. Patients with evidence of venous thrombosis should be anticoagulated for at least 6 months. Recurrent thrombosis and renal vein thrombosis warrant lifelong anticoagulation.
Although he may need a renal biopsy, he needs to have his thrombus treated first as the "next" step. The same is true of using cyclophosphamide and prednisone. This patient most likely has membranous glomerulonephritis simply because he is an adult with nephrotic syndrome, and this is the most common cause in adults. Colonoscopy should also be done in a patient like this because there is a strong association of glomerulonephritis with solid tumors, such as colon and breast cancer
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| drdg
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good question
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| ing
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I remember that I have read somewher:
The goal of Tx for DVT is to prevent future thrombosis. That's why we use anticoagulant not thrombolytic drugs.
Is this correct??
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