Kamsi Forum Guru
Topics: 103 Posts: 347
| | 10/16/07 - 10:25 AM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
46) A 45-year-old woman reports that she has been having increased involuntary loss of urine, which is especially pronounced when she is feeling nervous or while sitting at her desk. Jogging does not worsen the incontinence. She has not had these symptoms in the past and is otherwise healthy. She is not taking any medications and has never been pregnant. On physical examination, she is afebrile, with stable vital signs. Her abdomen is benign, and vaginal examination reveals no prolapse. Sensation in all extremities is intact, with good motor strength. Her gait is normal, and reflexes are intact. Her work-up reveals a negative urinalysis, and blood cultures and urine cultures are all negative. Serum glucose level and glycosylated hemoglobin level is normal. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate next step in diagnosis? A. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) B. Stress testing C. Q-tip test D. Cystometry E. Cystoscopy 22) A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of the recent onset of obesity and easy bruisability. His blood pressure is 165/95 mm Hg. Dermal striae are found on physical examination. A dipstick examination of urine reveals glycosuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis? A. Baseline plasma ACTH measurement B. CT scans of the chest and abdomen C. Dexamethasone suppression test D. Measurement of midnight serum cortisol level E. Measurement of 24-hour urine cortisol and creatinine F. MRI scans of the head 27) A 28-year-old man with chronic nephritis comes to the clinic for a checkup. He has a creatine of 6.7 mg/dL, urea nitrogen of 70 mg/dL, and a hemoglobin of 8.4 g/dL. His platelet count is 200,000/mm3. He feels well except for some mild fatigue with exercise. His blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, his lungs are clear. His heart is regular with a soft systolic murmur. His abdomen is soft. He is guaiac negative for occult blood. His ferritin level is 200 ng/mL and is iron saturation is 25%. His mean corpuscular volume is 85 µm3Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his anemia? A. No treatment, follow values B. Erythropoietin C. Folic acid D. Trial of iron therapy E. Blood transfusion
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mL and is iron saturation is 25%. His mean corpuscular volume is 85 µm3Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his anemia? (0 KB, 16 downloads)
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| aaroho Forum Junior
Topics: 8 Posts: 75
| | 10/16/07 - 12:23 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
D C B
___________________ Life is wonderful when doctors all around
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| Achillis Forum Newbie
Topics: 1 Posts: 12
| | 10/16/07 - 02:05 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
D C B
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| hanialkhadher Forum Elite

Topics: 16 Posts: 256
| | 10/16/07 - 10:49 PM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |

___________________ "أقرأ بأسم ربك الذي خلق,خلق الأنسان من علق,أقرأ و ربك الأكرم, الذي علم بالقلم,علم الأنسان ما لم يعلم"
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| Kamsi Forum Guru
Topics: 103 Posts: 347
| | 10/17/07 - 01:39 AM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
U guys are correct
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| RitaM Forum Newbie
Topics: 1 Posts: 61
| | 10/26/07 - 04:13 PM  
 
   
 
|   #6 |
Hey guys, For any patient presenting with features suggestive of Cushings go with cortisol levels first.Then confirm it with a dexamethasone suppression test.The Dex teat can be positive in many cases like even depression.You must choose between the high dose and low dose dex test.To confirm it start the cosyntropin test. Correct me if I am wrong
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