essie
Forum Newbie
Topics: 3
Posts: 4
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A previously healthy 72-year-old man is brought to the physician because of two episodes of transient paresis in the left arm during the past 2 days; each episode lasted for 3 to 4 minutes. No bruits are heard over the carotid arteries, and there are no cardiac murmurs. Carotid duplex ultrasonography and confirmatory arteriography show a 30% stenosis of the internal carotid arteries bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Aspirin therapy
B) Heparin therapy
C) Nifedipine therapy
D) Placement of a carotid endovascular stent
E) Carotid endarterectomy
I think the answer is A but I'm not understanding what we do in symptomatic pts with less than 70% occlusion. Are these symptoms NOT due to the carotid artery occlusion and due to something else?????
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| elitoki
Forum Guru
Topics: 54
Posts: 508
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A. TIA.
pte who are in severe symptom or >70% of stenosis best treatment is endartecrectomy, but this pte, I think his symptom is mild, and just need anticoagulation.
let me know if i'm wrong.
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| radonc
Forum Senior
Topics: 6
Posts: 175
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Agree with A.
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| doc_clotaire
Forum Guru
Topics: 159
Posts: 1,245
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A is my best shot too
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| tamerbashir
Forum Elite
Topics: 20
Posts: 284
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