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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

I got it right but i'm not sure what the problem is here - is it that you can't feel one ovary or the fact that you can fell the other???

A healthy 60-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine examination. She has no history of illness over the past year and has never had an operation. She takes no medications. Menopause occurred 6 years ago. She weighs 57 kg (125 lb) and is 160 cm (63 in) tall. Pelvic examination shows atrophic external genitalia and a small, midpositioned uterus. The left ovary is 3 x 3 cm, the right ovary is not palpable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

O A) Reexamination in 1 month
O B) Reexamination in 1 year
O C) Obtain patient's medical records
O D) Measurement of serum progesterone level
O E) Pelvic ultrasonography

  #2

c...i guess.....

  #3

I think it's E...but i dont' know what the problem is....shaking head

  #4

imconfused between A,B and E. ovaries in the postmenopausal period should b atropic. can anyone tell me if a size of 3 by 3 cms is considered an enlarged ovary?

i suppose a non palpable ovary is normal post menopausally.

so wat do we do? perform a USG or call the patient again after sometime and chk whether the mass has increased in size. anyway i think u will hv to do the USG.

so i go for E


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  #5

Answer is E because you got the size of ovary by Physical Exam.
After suspecting mass in ovary, it needs to be done USG to verified the size and determinate what kind of mass (solid or cystic) is present.


  #6

E

WE PALPATE NORMAL SIZE OVARY ON PHYSICAL EXAM ?







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