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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author3 Posts
  #1

A 60-year-old male executive with a history of angina pectoris and
depression had bypass surgery the previous day. His depression has
responded well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
and there is no history of psychosis in the past. He now presents
with confusion, agitation, irritability, and tries to remove his
IV lines. His level of consciousness fluctuates, and at times he
forgets who he is. He is given a neuroleptic drug, and appears
much improved. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adjustment disorder
B. Delirium
C. Dementia
D. Exacerbation of depression with suicidal ideation and psychotic features
E. Schizophrenia


  #2

B

___________________
Experience is a hard teacher because she gives the test first, and the lesson afterwards.

  #3

B







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