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diverticulitis
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Author13 Posts
  #1

A 44-year-old previously healthy man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-day history of abdominal pain that initially started as a diffuse pain, and later became constant and severe, localized to the left lower quadrant. He also had nausea, vomiting, and a fever of 38.3 C (101.0 F). His past medical history is remarkable for an appendectomy at the age 9, and a hernia repair at the age of 20. Both surgical procedures were uneventful, and he was discharged home on the next postoperative day. On admission to the hospital, his temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F), blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Abdominal examination shows a distended, soft abdomen with tenderness and fullness in the left lower quadrant. Rectal examination does not reveal any abnormalities. A nasogastric tube is inserted and drains 400 ml bilious material. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 18,000/mm3. Abdominal x-ray shows 6-7 air fluid levels with no free air. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, performed on the day of admission to the hospital, confirms diverticulitis localized to the sigmoid colon with no abscess or free air. He is started on intravenous antibiotics and kept nil per os. Over the next few days, his temperature normalizes and his pain resolves with intravenous antibiotics. The most appropriate management of this patient is to
A. order a barium enema
B. perform a colonoscopy
C. recommend an elective sigmoid colon resection
D. repeat a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis in 1-week
E. switch him to oral antibiotics


  #2

C

(maybe E)

but I go with C


___________________
Experience is a hard teacher because she gives the test first, and the lesson afterwards.

  #3

very good question.......i hope it's not from NBME smiling face

D (to r/o abscesses)

  #4

E. switch him to oral antibiotics

C-for frequently recurring episodes

starcraftbw wrote:
D (to r/o abscesses)

It was already excluded on a day of admission
smiling face

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Don't live in a town where there are no doctors

  #5

if diverticulits occurs in a younger patient, then recurrnce frequency is a lot higher, which is why you go with elective resection right away before the antibiotics. Vs an older patient with his first occurance of diverticulits, then just put him on antibiotics and hope it doesn't happen again, cause you don't want to put the old man under the knife unless you absolutely have to.

what's the answer???


___________________
Experience is a hard teacher because she gives the test first, and the lesson afterwards.

  #6

I would think E. But Doc750 gave a reasonable explanation.

So what's the right answer, kamsi?

  #7

i think its D ....coz it was obstruction before and barium enema or colonoscopy relatively contraindicated in obstruction...and after hearing.,gut sounds u can feed or give oral antibiotics...anyone plz helpwinkwinkwinkwinkcool

  #8

B

For a stablized diverticultis, after acute attack should go for a colonoscopy.

  #9

C.


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Don't charge for what you've received for free!

  #10

I'd go for E

___________________
Man who fights too long against the dragons becomes a dragon himself.

  #11

E he is getting better and eventually ready to go home.


___________________
If you beleive you can do it then you WILL DO IT!! (by Mymeghhi)

  #12

According for First Aid CCS, colonoscopy is performed four weeks after recovery and sigmoid resection is reserved for cases refractory to antibiotics. So the answer is E


  #13

e







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