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Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his bleeding?
A. Diffuse descending colon ischemia 0%
0 0%
B. Hemorrhage from a single diverticular arteriole 60%
Justice, suv, Dr.D
3 60%
C. Oozing from an inferior mesenteric vein 0%
0 0%
D. Thrombosis of the inferior mesenteric artery 20%
docfor99
1 20%
E. Thrombosis of internal hemorrhoids 0%
0 0%
5 votes



Author8 Posts
  #1

A 74-year-old man presents with two episodes of passing large amounts of bright red blood per rectum. He has a long history of chronic constipation without a recent change in his bowel habits. A flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals multiple large diverticula in the sigmoid colon with copious amounts of fresh blood in this region. No other abnormalities are seen on examination of the splenic flexure, where formed brown stool is encountered. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his bleeding?

A. Diffuse descending colon ischemia
B. Hemorrhage from a single diverticular arteriole
C. Oozing from an inferior mesenteric vein
D. Thrombosis of a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery
E. Thrombosis of internal hemorrhoids



  #2

B. Hemorrhage from a single diverticular arteriole

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  #3

whats the ans usmle jedi ?

  #4

Yes, B. Hemorrhage from a single diverticular arteriole.

  #5

thrombosis will have bloody diarrhoea which is diff from bright red blood from rectum with constipation .... and also sever most pain in abdo ( thrombosis)

  #6

B

  #7

B nod

  #8

Yep, (B)

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